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Six bells commence tolling together and toll at the intervals of 2,4,6,8,10,12 seconds resp. In 60 minutes how many times they will toll together.

  • 15
  • 16
  • 30
  • 31

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

LCM of 2-4-6-8-10-12 is 120 seconds, that is 2 minutes.

Now 60/2 = 30
Adding one bell at the starting it will 30+1 = 31

Similar Questions :

1. Find the HCF of 2.1, 1.05 and 0.63

  • 0.44
  • 0.64
  • 0.21
  • None of above

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

To solve this question quickly, first remove decimal by multiplying each term with 100,
Then terms become 210, 105, 63
Then HCF of above terms is 21,
So Answer is 0.21

2. Reduce \begin{aligned}
\frac{803}{876}
\end{aligned} to the lowest terms.

  • \begin{aligned} \frac{11}{12} \end{aligned}
  • \begin{aligned} \frac{23}{24} \end{aligned}
  • \begin{aligned} \frac{26}{27} \end{aligned}
  • \begin{aligned} \frac{4}{7} \end{aligned}

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

HCF of 803 and 876 is 73, Divide both by 73, We get the answer 11/12

3. Reduce \begin{aligned}
\frac{368}{575}
\end{aligned} to the lowest terms.

  • \begin{aligned} \frac{30}{25} \end{aligned}
  • \begin{aligned} \frac{28}{29} \end{aligned}
  • \begin{aligned} \frac{28}{29} \end{aligned}
  • \begin{aligned} \frac{16}{25} \end{aligned}

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

We can do it easily by in two steps
Step1: We get the HCF of 368 and 575 which is 23
Step2: Divide both by 23, we will get the answer 16/25

4. Find the largest number which divides 62,132,237 to leave the same reminder

  • 30
  • 32
  • 35
  • 45

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Trick is HCF of (237-132), (132-62), (237-62)
= HCF of (70,105,175) = 35

5. Find the greatest number that will divide 400, 435 and 541 leaving 9, 10 and 14 as remainders respectively

  • 19
  • 17
  • 13
  • 9

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Answer will be HCF of (400-9, 435-10, 541-14)

HCF of (391, 425, 527) = 17

Read more from - HCF and LCM Questions Answers
Post a comment

  • Roshan J 8 years ago

    hi mastguru could you please explain this answer:
    1. why LCM is followed?
    2. And why +1 is done at the end?

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